Some late scholars hold that it is of Sunnah to perform Thuhr Sal?t after the Jumu‘ah Sal?t as a way of avoiding disagreement amongst scholars regarding doing Jumu‘ah Sal?t in more than one mosque. Their opinion is, however, a flase one.

To conclude, if it were raised that the previously stated prohibition of doing more than Jumu‘ah Sal?t in a certain area is due to the precondition that no Sal?t should be done simultaneously with the Jumu‘ah Sal?t, what proof do these scholars have for this??

If it were raised that the evidence lies in the prophet’s ( - ) had?th: ‘The Jumu‘ah Sal?t that counts is the first one done’, then the answer for this is that this had?th is a false one that has no basis in the [authentic] Sunnah, it is merely an opinion held by some late Sh?fi‘? followers and some irnorants believed that it is a had?th. (1)

If it were raised that the prophet ( - ) did not allow any Jumu‘ah Sal?t to be held in any of the Mad?nah mosques and its supurbs except the one in which he ( - ) did Sal?t, the answer is that: this does not indicate that this prohibition is a condition without which Sal?t is rendered null and void nor does it indicate an obligation.

If the previously mentioned hypotheses were true, this would entail that the same ruling is to be applied to the other five obligatory Salaw?t; i.e. no congregational Sal?t to be held in a place in which the prophet ( - ) did not allow that a second congregation be done. This is indeed a sheer falsehood.

Besides, if the latter Jumu‘ah congregation was to be considered nul and void -in case the latter is known -or both- in case the precise time of their initiation is not known- due to a certain hindrance, then what is this hindrance?? It is of the well-established Islamic principles the validity of the act of worship everywhere, every time unless there is a certain kind of hindrance